Philosophical discussion.
How can someone possess free will in a reality that is already predetermined? If the world is prophesized to end on 2050 – and no mortal decision can prevent that end – how is it that mortals possess the free will to change that event from occurring?
Addendum: If supplication to an immortal force will delay the inevitable end or result in a more favorable outcome, then there is the argument that free will is choosing to worship or not worship the immortal force. However is that merely the illusion of choice? True free will is choice without constraints - blackmail and threats of finality are constraints.
Arthur Schopenhauer once proposed that, “Man can do what he wills but he cannot will what he wills”.
That basically translates as: though you may choose to act in accordance to the events presented to you, the events leading to and after have already been predetermined. Therefore free will is an illusion if the future is prophetic: what you do is not your choice, for it must happen for the planned events afterward to occur.
Thus Narg having a basement full of enslaved twincest servants in Stockholm Syndrome is not morally his fault: it was destined to occur to preserve the future. Don’t wanna cause a reality destructive paradox.